2020 September UGC NET Paper II (Law) | Solved Previous Year Question Papers | UGC NET Entrance Solved Papers PDF

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UGC NET PAPER- II QUESTION PAPER 2020| Click Here to Download PDF

2020 September UGC NET Paper II (Law)

Number of questions- 100

Marks- 200

1. In which of the following cases, the rule, that “there is no distinction between ‘de facto’ and ‘de jure’ recognition for the purpose of giving effect to the internal acts of the recognised authority” was not applied?

1. Bank of Ethiopia v. National Bank of Egypt
2. Luther v. Sagor
3. Bank of China v. Wells Fargo Bank & Union Trust
4. The Arantzazu Mendi case.

Answer: (c)

2. Any agreement in respect of production, supply, distribution, storage, acquisition, or control of goods or provision of service which causes or is likely to cause an appreciable adverse effect on competition in India is void. These agreements include:

A. Tie in arrangement

B. Exclusive supply agreement

C. Exclusive distribution agreement

D. Refusal to deal

E. Resale price maintenance

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A and B only
2. C, D, E only
3. A, B, C only
4. A, B, C, D, E – All.

Answer: (d)

3. Given below are two statements, one is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as Reason(R).

Assertion (A): According to Article 7 of the United Nations Charter, the International Court of Justice is one of the principal organs of the United Nations.

Reason(R): The International Court of Justice consists of 15 judges who are elected by the Security Council.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
3. (A) is true but (R) is false
4. (A) is false but (R) is true.

Answer: (c)

4. The provisions given under Article 13 of the Indian Constitution are as follows:

A. All laws in force in the territory of India immediately before the commencement of this Constitution will be void to the extent of the inconsistency.

B. ‘Laws in force’ includes all laws passed or made by the legislature or other competent authority in the territory of India before the commencement of this constitution and not previously repeated.

C. The state shall not make any law which takes or abridges right conferred by Part III and any law made in the contravention shall be void.

D. Law’ does not include any ordinance, order, bye-law, rule, regulation, notification, custom or usage etc.

E. Article 13 shall apply to any amendment of the Constitution made under Article 368.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. B and D only
2. D and E only
3. A and E only
4. A, B, and C only.

Answer: (a)

5. Which of the following duties have been included by Austin in the category of ‘absolute duties’?

A. Duties owed to persons indefinitely

B. Self-regarding duties

C. Duties owed to the sovereign

D. Duties owed to parents

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B and C only
2. B, C and D only
3. A, C and D only
4. A, B, C and D all.

Answer: (a)

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6. By which amendment of the Information Technology Act, 2000 the third and fourth schedules were omitted?

A. Act 10 of 2009

B. Act 55 of 2009

C. Act 66 of 2009

D. Act 09 of 2009

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A only
2. B only
3. C only
4. D only.

Answer: (a)

7. Match List-I with List-II.

List-I (Provision)

A. Law applied by the International Court of Justice

B. Courts power to allow a state to intervene in a case to which it is not a party

C. Jurisdiction of the International Court of Justice

D. Interim Measures or relief by the International Court of Justice

List-II (Article of the statute of the International Court of Justice)

(i) Article 36

(ii) Article 38

(iii) Article 41

(iv) Article 62

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-(i), B-(ii),C-(iii), D-(iv)
2. A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii)
3. A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv)
4. A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(i).

Answer: (b)

8. Arrange the initiatives on climate change in chronological order:

A. Durban conference on climate change

B. Montreal Protocol on climate change

C. Vienna convention on climate change

D. Copenhagen Summit on climate change

E. Kyoto Protocol on climate change

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B, C, D, E
2. B, C, D, E, A
3. A, D, C, B, E
4. C, B, E, D, A.

Answer: (d)

9. What is a whistle-blower?

1. A person who signals illegal or unethical practice to a prescribed body
2. Usually a disgruntled ex-employee
3. A subversive person spying on a company
4. An investigative journalist.

Answer: (a)

10. Match List-I with List-II.

List-I (Provision)

A. Punishment for pronouncing talaq

B. Offenses to be cognizable, compoundable, etc.

C. Custody of minor children

D. Talaq to be void and illegal

List-II (Section under Muslim Woman Protection of Rights on Marriage Act, 2019)

(i) Section 3

(ii) Section 7

(iii) Section 4

(iv) Section 6

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
2. A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i)
3. A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(i)
4. A-(iv), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(ii).

Answer: (b)

11. Which of the following are correct?

A. The Doctrine of Priority of Consideration is applicable in India.

B. The Doctrine of Priority of Consideration is not applicable in India.

C. The Rule of Priority of Contract is applicable in India.

D. The Rule of Priority of Contract is not applicable in India.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A and C only
2. B and D only
3. B and C only
4. C only.

Answer: This question is deleted

12. Match List-I with List-II.

List-I

A. Murli S. Deora v. Union of India

B. Sunil Batra v. Delhi Administration Pollution

C. Hussainara Khatoon v. the State of Bihar

D. Rural Litigation and Entitlement Kendra v. the State of U.P

List-II

(i) Protection against Inhuman treatment in Jail

(ii) Protection of Ecology and Environmental

(iii) Ban on smoking in public places

(iv) Speedy trial is an integral part of the fundamental right under Article 21 of the Indian constitution

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
2. A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii)
3. A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii)
4. A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i).

Answer: (c)

13. The maxim “Salus Populi Suprema Lex” means:

1. The welfare of people is the supreme law
2. Increasing population is the supreme cause of concern
3. No man is above the law
4. Whatever the public collectively says, is the law.

Answer: (a)

14. The provision regarding the offenses against the Public Tranquility is as follows:

A. Whoever, being aware of facts which render any assembly, an unlawful assembly, intentionally joins that assembly, or continues in it, is said to be a member of unlawful assembly.

B. When two or more persons, by fighting in a public place, disturb the public peace, they are said to ‘Commit an affray’.

C. Whoever is a member of an unlawful assembly shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to one year.

D. Whoever commits an affray, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to one month, or with fine which may extend to one hundred rupees, or with both.

E. Whoever is guilty of rioting shall be punished with fine only.

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

1. B and C only
2. C and D only
3. A, B, and D only
4. A and C only.

Answer: (c)

15. Arrange the provisions of the Indian Penal Code in chronological order, section-wise:

A. House-trespass in order to commit an offense punishable with imprisonment for life

B. House-trespass in order to commit an offense punishable with death

C. Lurking house-trespass or house-breaking in order to commit an offense punishable with imprisonment

D. House-trespass in order to commit an offense punishable with imprisonment

E. Lurking house-trespass or house-breaking by night in order to commit an offence punishable with imprisonment

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. E, A, C, B, D
2. D, A, E, C, B
3. A, B, C, D, E
4. B, A, D, C, E.

Answer: (d)

16. Under the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act,1986, a divorced woman shall be entitled to:

A. A reasonable and fair provision and maintenance to be made and paid to her within the ‘iddat’ period by her former husband.

B. Maintenance of children by her former husband for a period of three years.

C. Get maintenance from her relatives even after her remarriage.

D. All the properties are given to her at any time only by her husband.

E. An amount equal to the sum of ‘Mahr’ or dower agreed to be paid to her at the time of marriage or at any time thereafter according to Muslim Law.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A and E only
2. A, B and E
3. B, C and E only
4. A and B only.

Answer: (a)

17. The responsibilities of Economic and Social Council regarding improvement and protection of human rights is laid down under which Article of U.N Charter?

A. Article 62(2)

B. Article 68

C. Article 76 (C)

D. Article 96

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A only
2. B only
3. C only
4. D only.

Answer: (b)

18. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion(A) and the other is labelled as Reason(R).

Assertion(A): Whoever assaults or uses criminal force an any person, in attempting to commit theft on any property which that person is then wearing or carrying, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine, or with both.

Reason(R): Section 356 of Indian Penal Code provides for the punishment of imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine, or with both if a person assaults or uses criminal force on any person in attempting to commit theft or any property which that person is then wearing or carrying.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2. (b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
3. (A) is true but (R) is false
4. (A) is false but (R) is true.

Answer: (a)

19. A bigamous Hindu marriage is:

1. Void but not punishable
2. Void and punishable
3. Voidable
4. Valid.

Answer: (b)

20. Which of the following is NOT a feature of ‘Mitakshara Coparcenary’?

1. Unobstructed heritage
2. Obstructed heritage
3. Unpredictable and fluctuating interest
4. Community of interest and unity of possession.

Answer: (b)

21. In which of the following cases, the ‘minimal creativity test’ was laid down?

A. Eastern Book Company v. D.B. Modak

B. R.G. Anand v. Delux Films

C. Amar Nath Sehgal v. Union of India

D. University of London Press v. University Tutorial Press

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A only
2. B only
3. C only
4. D only.

Answer: (a)

22. The quantum of punishments given under Indian Penal Code are:

A. Whoever commits extortion shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to three years or with a fine or with both.

B. Whoever commits a criminal breach of trust shall be punished for a term that may extend to seven years.

C. Whoever dishonestly misappropriates or converts to his own use any movable property shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to two years or with a fine or with both.

D. Whoever makes any preparation for committing dacoity shall be punished with a fine only.

E. If at the time of attempting to commit robbery or dacoity the offender is armed with deadly weapons, shall be punished for two years

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. B and C only
2. B and D only
3. A, D, and E only
4. A and C only.

Answer: (d)

23. Arrange in chronological order the publication of the books on Jurisprudence.

A. Province of Jurisprudence Determined by Austin

B. Concept of Law by H.L.A. Hart

C. The Province and Function of Law by Julius Stone

D. Nature of Judicial Process by Benjamin N.Cardozo

E. Anatomy of Law by Lon L Fuller

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B, C, D,
2. B, C, D, E, A
3. A, D, C, B, E
4. C, B, E, D, A.

Answer: (c)

24. Give the chronological order (year wise) of these cases decided by the courts:

A. West Rand Central Gold Mining Company Ltd. v. R.

B.Portugal v. India

C. Burkina Faso v. Mali

D. Mavrommiatis Palestine Concessions case

E. Chorzow Factory (Indemnity) case

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, C, D, B, E
2. A, B, C, D, E
3. A, E, B, C, D
4. A, E, B, D, C.

Answer: This question is deleted

25. Which of the following statements are NOT correct?

A. In the Hague Conference of 1930, a convention on the conflict of Nationality law was signed and adopted.

B. Nottebohm case is related to “statelessness”.

C. On 7th November 1967, the General Assembly of the U.N adopted the declaration on elimination of discrimination against women.

D. The Convention on the Reduction of Statelessness, 1961 came into force on December 13, 1965.

E. The Convention on the Status of Stateless Persons was adopted on 6th June 1960.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, C, E only
2. B, D, E only
3. B, C, D only
4. A, B, C only.

Answer: (b)

26. Under Article 14 of the Indian Constitution, the term ‘Equal Protection of the Laws’ has been taken from the:

1. American Constitution
2. British Constitution
3. Australian Constitution
4. Canadian Constitution.

Answer: (a)

27. Rules relating to ‘Sapinda Relationship’ are based on the principle of:

1. Endogamy
2. Polyandry
3. Polygamy
4. Exogamy.

Answer: (d)

28. Chronologically arrange the following Judgments of the Supreme Court of India on Uniform Civil Code:

A. Daniel Latifi v. Union of India

B. John Vallamattom v. Union of India

C. Sarla Mudgal v. Union of India

D. Mohd. Ahmed Khan v. Shah Bano Begum

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. C, B, D, A
2. D, C, B, A
3. D, C, A, B
4. A, B, C, D.

Answer: (c)

29. An offer cannot be accepted unless it was brought to the knowledge of the person to whom it is made. This was laid down in the case of:

1. Lalman Shukla v. Gauri Dutt
2. Balfour v. Balfour
3. Mcgregor v. Mcgregor
4. Carlill v. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co.

Answer: (a)

30. The provision regarding ‘legislation for giving effect to international agreements is given in the Indian Constitution under:

1. Article 253
2. Article 255
3. Article 251
4. Article 254.

Answer: (a)

31. Under Section 361 of Indian Penal Code the “kidnapping from lawful guardianship” is:

A. When someone takes or entices any minor without the consent of the guardian.

B. When someone takes or entices any person of unsound mind, out of the keeping of lawful guardian without the consent of the guardian.

C.When someone entices or takes away any minor under 16 years of age if male and 18 years of age if female without consent of the guardian.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A and B only
2. A, B and C only
3. A and C only
4. B and C only.

Answer: (d)

32. Section 376 DB of Indian Penal Code provides for the:

1. Punishment for gang rape of a woman under sixteen years of age
2. Punishment of rape of woman under twelve years of age
3. Punishment for gang rape of a woman under twelve years of age
4. Punishment for causing death or resulting in a persistent vegetative state of the victim.

Answer: (c)

33. Match List-I with List-II.

List-I (Terms)

A. Abridged Prospectus

B. Deemed Prospectus

C. Shelf Prospectus

D. Red herring Prospectus

List-II (Section of Companies Act, 2013)

(i) Section 31

(ii) Section 32

(iii) Section 2 (1)

(iv) Section 25

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)
2. A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)
3. A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
4. A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii).

Answer: (a)

34. Which of the following are the exceptions of the ‘specific enforcement rule’ of the Theory of Remedial Liability?

A. Imperfect duties

B. Duties that are impossible for specific performance

C. Duties which are inexpedient to enforce specifically

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A and B only
2. A and C only
3. B and C only
4. A, B and C all.

Answer: (d)

35. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Provision under Indian Penal Code)

A. An act is done in good faith for benefit of a person without consent.

B. Dishonest or fraudulent execution of the deed of transfer containing false statement of consideration

C. Voluntarily causing grievous hurt by use of acid

D. Theft by clerk or servant of property in possession of master.

List-II (Section)

(i) Section 423

(ii) Section 381

(iii) Section 92

(iv) Section 326 A

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iv)
2. A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii)
3. A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
4. A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i).

Answer: (b)

36. The Commission on Sustainable Development was established in which year?

1. 1972
2. 1982
3. 1992
4. 2002.

Answer: (c)

37. The provision relating to ‘solid waste management’ is contained under which Schedule of the Constitution of India?

A. Schedule VII

B. Schedule IX

C. Schedule XI

D. Schedule XII

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A only
2. B only
3. C only
4. D only.

Answer: (d)

38. The provision relating to drinking water is contained under which Schedule of the Constitution of India, 1950?

A. Schedule VII

B. Schedule IX

C. Schedule XI

D. Schedule XII

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A only
2. B only
3. C only
4. D only.

Answer: (c)

39. A person may be liable in respect of wrongful acts or omission of others in which of the following ways:

A. As having ratified and authorised the particular act

B. As standing towards the other person in a relation entailing responsibility for wrongs done by that person

C. As having abetted the tortious acts committed by others

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A only
2. B only
3. C only
4. A, B, C.

Answer: (d)

40. Arrange the provisions of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 in chronological order (section-wise).

A. Partnership at will

B. Mode of determining the existence of the partnership

C. Property of a firm

D. Duties of a partner

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. B, A, D, C
2. C, B, A, D
3. A, C, B, D
4. D, A, B, C.

Answer: (a)

41. Under Section 5 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, a contract for the sale of goods can be made:

A. By writing and must be registered.

B. By word of mouth.

C. By partly in writing and partly word of mouth.

D. By writing or partly in writing and partly by word of mouth.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A and C only
2. A and D only
3. A and B only
4. B and D only.

Answer: (d)

42. Arrange the theories of intellectual property in order of prominence and influence.

A. Personality theory

B. Social Planning theory

C. Labour Theory

D. Utilitarian Theory

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, D, C, B
2. B, A, C, D
3. C, B, D, A
4. D, C, A, B.

Answer: (d)

43. Which one of the following is the mandatory minimum requirement for a functional federation?

1. States should be represented in the Upper House of the National Legislature
2. Judicial Review
3. Distribution of legislative and administrative powers between the two sets of Governments – National and State, so as to ensure the independence of the Government within their respective sphere
4. Distribution of legislative and administrative powers between the two sets of Governments – National and State, so as to ensure the independent but coordinated exercise of powers of the Government.

Answer: (c)

44. Article 72 of the Indian Constitution makes a provision for:

1. Discharge of the President’s functions in other contingencies
2. Power of President to grant pardons etc. and to suspend, remit or commute sentences in certain cases
3. Extent of executive power of the Union
4. Council of Ministers to aid and advice the President.

Answer: (b)

45. ‘A’ an officer of a court of justice, being ordered by that court to arrest ‘Y’, and after due enquiry, believing ‘Z’ to be ‘Y’, arrests ‘Z’. ‘A’ has committed:

1. An offence of wrongful confinement
2. An offence of wrongful restraint
3. An offence of criminal trespass
4. No offence.

Answer: (d)

46. When two motorists coming from opposite directions in their cars collide with each other and in the process, they injure seriously a person who was standing on the roadside, the two motorists are:

1. Independent tortfeasors
2. Participate in contributory negligence
3. Two negligent persons
4. Joint tortfeasors.

Answer: (a)

47. When the biological resources are accessed for commercial utilization or the bio-survey and bio utilization leads to commercial utilization, the applicant shall have the option to pay the benefit-sharing ranging from:

1. 0.1 to 0.2
2. 0.1 to 0.3
3. 0.1 to 0.4
4. 0.1 to 0.5.

Answer: (d)

48. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason

Assertion(A): If the adoption is of a son, the adoptive Hindu father or mother by whom the adoption is made must not have a Hindu son, son’s son or son’s son’s son (whether by legitimate blood relationship or by adoption) living at the time of adoption.

Reason(R): Section 11 (i) of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956, which deals with the right of adoptive parents ‘under other conditions for a valid adoption’ imposes this restriction.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2. (b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
3. (c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
4. (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

Answer: (a)

49. National Commission of Minorities was established under which of the following provisions?

1. Article 328 of the Constitution
2. Article 328A of the Constitution
3. Section 3 of National Commission of Minorities Act, 1992
4. Article 280 of the Constitution of India.

Answer: (c)

50. Arrange in chronological order, the cases relating to U.S. Constitutional Amendments:

A. Plessy v. Ferguson

B. Hawke v. Smith

C. Laser v. Garnett

D. U.S. v. Sprague

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B, C, D
2. A, C, B, D
3. B, C, D, A
4. D, B, C, A.

Answer: (a)

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51. A tort is a civil wrong for which, the remedy is an action for damages and which is not exclusively breach of contract or breach of trust or breach of merely equitable obligation. The above definition was given by:

1. Salmond
2. Winfield
3. Fraser
4. Clerk and Lindsell.

Answer: (a)

52. The provision relating to ‘legal recognition of electronic signatures’ is contained under which section of Information Technology Act, 2000?

1. Section 3
2. Section 3-A
3. Section 4
4. Section 5.

Answer: (d)

53. A company can convert into Limited Liability Partnership:

A. By complying to requirements of the third schedule of Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008

B. It can convert if there is no security interest in its assets subsisting at the time of application,

C. Partners of Limited Liability Partnership are the erstwhile shareholders of the company and no one else

D. All the assets, interests, rights and privileges of the company are transferred to the firm.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A only
2. B only
3. C only
4. A, B, C, D – All.

Answer: (d)

54. In which case, in respect of natural justice, Lord Denning said that “With a good man in the saddle, the unruly horse can be kept under control. It can jump over obstacles. It can leap fences put up by fictions and come down on the other side of justice.”?

1. Enderby Town Football Club Ltd. v. Football Association Ltd.
2. Canara Bank v. Debasis Das
3. V. Hendon Rural District Council
4. American Cyanamide Co. v. Federal Trade Commission.

Answer: (a)

55. In the Presidential form of government:

A. The chief executive is relatively free from sectional and party disputes.

B. The chief executive is free to choose his team of ministers from the best talent available.

C. The term of the chief executive is not fixed.

D. It discourages the disease of defections.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. A, B and C only
2. A, B and D only
3. B, C and D only
4. A, B, C and D – All.

Answer: (b)

56. The provision regarding ‘selling minors for purposes of prostitution etc’ is given in Indian Penal code under:

1. Section 372
2. Section 373
3. Section 370 A
4. Section 371.

Answer: (a)

57. The legally binding limit to carbon emission was laid down in:

1. Kyoto Protocol on Global Warming, 1997
2. Copenhagen Summit on Climate Change, 2009
3. Durban Conference on Climate Change, 2009
4. Lima Conference on Climate Change.

Answer: (a)

58. The real relation of Jurisprudence to Law depends not upon what law is treated, but how Law is treated, ‘ is said by

1. Gierke
2. Gray
3. Rawls
4. Duguit.

Answer: (b)

59. Match List-I with List-II.

List-I (Provision)

A. Hazardous Substance

B. Environment

C. Handling

D. Accident

List-II (Section under National Green Tribunal Act, 2010)

(i) Section 2 (a)

(ii) Section 2 (e)

(iii) Section 2 (f)

(iv) Section 2 (c)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-(i), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(ii)
2. A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii)
3. A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i)
4. A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii).

Answer: (c)

60. In which case, the Supreme Court held that pardoning powers of the President under Article 72 and Governor under Article 161 is subject to the judicial review?

1. Satya Narain Sharma v. State of Rajasthan
2. Vineet Narain v. Union of India
3. Epuru Sudhakar v. State of Andhra Pradesh
4. Chhotey Lal v. State of U.P.

Answer: (c)

61. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason(R).

Assertion (A): The Parliament has the power to make the laws for whole or any part of the territory of India and law made by the Parliament would be applicable beyond the territory of India also.

Reason(R): Article 245 Clause (1) of the Constitution of India empowers the Parliament to make the laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India and Article 245 Clause (2) says that no law made by Parliament shall be deemed to be invalid on the ground that it would have extraterritorial operation.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

b. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)

c. (A) is true but (R) is false

d. (A) is false but (R) is true.

Answer: (a)

62. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Provision under the Constitution of India)

A. Special provisions with respect to the state of Manipur

B. Special provisions with respect to the state of Karnataka

C. Special provisions with respect to the state of Sikkim

D. Special provisions with respect to the state of Mizoram

List-II (Article)

(i) Article 371-F

(ii) Article 371 -G

(iii) Article 377 -C

(iv) Article 371 -J

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii)
2. A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
3. A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i)
4. A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii).

Answer: (d)

63. Which of the following statements are correct?

A. The Dunkel Draft Text or Dunkel Package, or the Dunkel Draft Act embodying the results of Uruguay Round of Multilateral Trade Negotiation, was released on 20 December 1995.

B. The new World Trade Organisation (WTO) which came into effect on 1st January 1995, replaced the General Agreement on Tariff and Trade (GATT).

C. The functions of WTO are mentioned in Article III of the Agreement establishing WTO.

D. The Sixth Ministerial Conference of WTO was held in Hongkong (China) from 13th to 18th December 2008.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. B, C only
2. A, C, D only
3. A, B, C only
4. A, B, C, D.

Answer: (a)

64. Arrange chronologically the following cases decided by the Supreme Court year wise:

A. Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation

B. Francis Coralie v. Union Territory of Delhi

C. Satwant Singh v. Assistant Passport officer

D. Kharak Singh v. the State of U.P.

E. National Legal Services Authority v. Union of India

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. C, D, A, E, B
2. A, B, C, D, E
3. B, D, A, E, C
4. D, C, B, A, E.

Answer: (d)

65. Which of the following chapters of the United Nations Charter deals with pacific settlement of disputes?

1. Chapter VI
2. Chapter VII
3. Chapter III
4. Chapter II.

Answer: (a)

66. By which amendment, the third and fourth schedules of the IT Act were omitted?

1. Act 10 of 2009
2. Act 55 of 2002
3. Act 66 of 2009
4. Act 09 of 2009.

Answer: (a)

67. Match List-I with List-II.

List-I (Jurisdiction)

A. Jurisdiction of District forum

B. Jurisdiction of State commission

C. Jurisdiction of National Commission

D. Power to set aside ex parte orders

List-II (Section under Consumer Protection Act, 1986)

(i) Section 11

(ii) Section 21

(iii) Section 22 A

(iv) Section 17

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-(i), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(iii)
2. A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i)
3. A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv)
4. A-(iv), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(ii).

Answer: (a)

68. The main purpose of ‘Corporation Sole’ is to:

1. Make the property easily inheritable
2. Make the property easily transferable
3. Maintain continuity of an office
4. Protect the property of state.

Answer: (c)

69. Section 102 of the Indian Penal code deals with the provision relating to:

1. When the right of private defence of property extends to causing death
2. Right of private defence against deadly assault when there is a risk of harm to an innocent person
3. Commencement and continuance of a right of private defence of the body
4. When the right of private defence of the body extends to causing death.

Answer: (c)

70. In a parliamentary form of government, the British convention of ‘Ministerial Responsibility’ has been explicitly codified in the Indian Constitution under:

1. Article 74 (1)
2. Article 74 (2)
3. Article 75 (2)
4. Article 75 (3).

Answer: (d)

71. Frustration of a contract occurs in two conditions. Firstly, where the contract has become physically impossible and secondly, where the object has failed, The above was laid down in the case of:

1. Krell v. Henry
2. Paradine v. Jane
3. Taylor v. Caldwell
4. Komal Rani v. Chandram.

Answer: (a)

72. Under Article 30 of the Indian Constitution, the right to minorities are guaranteed as under:

A. The right is guaranteed to the religious minorities only.

B. The right is guaranteed for linguistic and religious minorities.

C. Right is given only to administer the educational institution

D. Right is given to minorities to establish and administer the educational institution.

E. The state is prohibited from making discrimination in the matter of grant of aid to any educational institution on the ground that it is managed by a religious minority or linguistic minority

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A and E only
2. B and C only
3. B, D, and E only
4. C and E only.

Answer: (c)

73. Read the statements about ‘rule of law’:

A. Rule of law is an important and fundamental pillar of a liberal and substantive democracy.

B. The rule of law is not merely public order, the rule of law is social justice based on public order.

C. The substantive ‘rule of law’ is the rule of proper law which balances the needs of the society and the individual.

D. Substantive and liberal democracy is based solely on formal democracy.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B and C only
2. A, C and D only
3. A, B and D only
4. A, B, C and D – All.

Answer: (a)

74. The movement of progressive societies has hitherto been a movement from status to contract. The statement has been made by:

1. Savigny
2. Puchta
3. Maine
4. Bruke.

Answer: (c)

75. In which case the Supreme Court held that the Preamble does form part of the Constitution?

1. Re Berubari Union and Exchange of Enclaves
2. Minerva Mills v. Union of India
3. Keshavanand Bharti v. State of Kerala
4. R. Bommai v. Union of India.

Answer: (c)

76. Which of the following is NOT a condition precedent for a valid adoption under the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956?

A. Adopter must have the capacity and right to take in adoption.

B. The child must be eligible for adoption.

C. The giver must have the capacity and right to give in adoption.

D. Datta – homam is mandatory.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A and B only
2. B and D only
3. C and D only
4. A and C only.

Answer: (c)

77. Threatening to commit certain acts forbidden by Indian Penal Code to induce a person to enter into a contract is associated with:

1. Undue influence
2. Coercion
3. Criminal intimidation
4. Threat.

Answer: (b)

78. Where does vicarious liability generally arise from?

A. A contract of service

B. A contract for service

C. A contract of service as well as a contract for service

D. A wrongful act of servant

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A and D only
2. D only
3. A, B, C, and D all
4. B only.

Answer:(a)

79. Which of the following provisions of the Statute of International Court of Justice lists “General Principles of Law Recognized by Civilised States” as the third source of International law?

1. Article 38 (a)
2. Para (1) (c) of Article 38
3. Article 38 (b) 1
4. Para (3) (c) of Article 38.

Answer: (b)

80. A party who suffers loss as a result of a breach of contract can in the usual course claim:

1. Ordinary damages
2. Special damages
3. Exemplary damages
4. Penal damages.

Answer:(a)

81. Which one of the following is not an ‘Ancient Source’ of Hindu Law?

1. Smriti
2. Precedents
3. Digests
4. Shruti.

Answer: (c)

82. Which of the following conditions are essential for a custom to be valid?

A. The custom had to possess a sufficient measure of antiquity

B. The custom must have been enjoyed ‘as a right’

C. The custom need not be consistent with other customs in the same area

D. The custom must be certain and precise

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. A and B only
2. A, B, and C only
3. A, B, and D only
4. A, B, C, and D only.

Answer: (c)

83. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason:

Assertion(A): Once a performer consents to the incorporation of his performance in a cinematograph film by a written agreement, he/she will not object to the enjoyment of the performers’ right by the producer in the same film.

Reason(R): The performer is entitled to royalties in case the producer of the film makes use of the performance for commercial use.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
3. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
4. (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

Answer: (b)

84. According to whom is it ‘Law of Tort and not Law of Torts?

1. Winfield
2. Pollock
3. Fraser
4. Salmond.

Answer: (a)

85. The words ‘International Law’ were used for the first time by which one of the following eminent Jurists?

1. Oppenheim
2. Friedmann
3. Austin
4. Jermy Bentham.

Answer: (d)

86. Match List-I with List-II.

List-I

A. Definition of Permanent Lok Adalat

B. Establishment of Permanent Lok Adalat

C. Cognizance by Permanent Lok Adalat

D. Award of Permanent Lok Adalat

List-II

(i) Section 22-B

(ii) Section 22-C

(iii) Section 22-E

(iv) Section 22-A

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-(i), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(ii)
2. A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv)
3. A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i)
4. A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii).

Answer: (d)

87. Arrange the following in chronological order (section wise) as stated in the Motor Vehicle Act, 1988:

A. Procedure and Power of Claims Tribunal

B. Award of Claim Tribunal

C. Claim Tribunals

D. Application for Compensation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. C, D, B, A
2. A, B, C, D
3. B, C, A, D
4. C, D, A, B.

Answer: (a)

88. The Chairperson of National Human Rights Commission shall be:

1. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
2. Chief Justice of a High Court
3. Judge of the Supreme Court
4. Chairpersons of National Commission of Women.

Answer: This question is deleted

89. Match List-I with List-II.

List-I (Provisions)

A. Performer

B. Performer’s right

C. Performance

D. Moral Rights of Performer

List-II (Sections of Copyright Act, 1957)

(i) Section 2 (q)

(ii) Section 38 B

(iii) Section 38

(iv) Section 2 (qq)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-(i), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(ii)
2. A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii)
3. A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iv)
4. A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii).

Answer: (d)

90. Which of the following statements describes the relationship between law and morality among non- positive legal theorists?

1. Law is always in advance of moral ideas
2. Morality is generally in advance of the law
3. The law is inextricably bound up with morals
4. There is no relationship between law and morality.

Answer: (d)

91. Comprehension

Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:

The right to live with dignity has been recognized as a human right on the international front and by the number of precedents of this Court and therefore, the Constitutional courts must strive to protect the dignity of every individual, for, without the right to dignity, every other right would be rendered meaningless. Dignity is an inseparable facet of every individual that invites reciprocative respect from others to every aspect of an individual which he/she perceives as an essential attribute of his/her individuality, be it an orientation or an optional expression of choice. The Constitution has ladened the judiciary with the very important duty to protect and ensure the right of every individual including the right to express and choose without any impediments so as to enable an individual to fully realize his/her fundamental right to live with dignity.

Sexual orientation is one of the many biological phenomena which is natural and inherent in an individual and is controlled by neurological and biological factors. The science of sexuality has theorized that an individual exerts little or no control over who he/she gets attracted to. Any discrimination on the basis of one’s sexual orientation would entail a violation of the fundamental right of freedom of expression.

The consensual sexual act of an adult is criminalised under which of the following legislations?

1. Indian Penal Code
2. POCSO
3. Criminal Law (Amendment) Act 2013
4. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

92. The fundamental right of the freedom of expression is contained in the following articles of the Indian Constitution:

1. Article 19(1)(a)
2. Article 19(1)(f)
3. Article 18(1)
4. Article 21.

Answer: (a)

93. Discrimination on the basis of sexual orientation is violative of which of the following fundamental rights?

1. Article 21 only
2. Article 14, 15 only
3. Article 15, 19 only
4. Articles 14, 15, 19, 27.

Answer: (d)

94. The above paragraph reflects the judgment in case of:

1. Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of Indian
2. Machi Singh v. State of Punjab
3. Sate of UP v. Ram Swaroop
4. Chairman Railway Board v. Chandrima Das.

Answer: (a)

95. Which one of the following judges were part of the judgment referred to in the paragraph?

1. Deepak Mishra
2. R.F. Nariman
3. D.Y. Chandrachud
4. Indu Malhotra.

Answer: (a)

96. Comprehension

Read the passage below carefully and answer the questions that follow:

The state of Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand have not cooperated with the central government to constitute a Ganga Management Board. The Uttarakhand High Court in the exercise of its ‘parens patriae’ jurisdiction, ordered conversation of Ganga and Yamuna rivers as juristic/legal persons/living entities, having the status of a legal person. The rivers Ganga and Yamuna are thus legal persons with corresponding rights of a living person. The director NAMAMI Ganga, the Chief Secretary and Advocate General of Uttarakhand states were declared as persons in ‘loco parentis’.

The division bench of Uttarakhand High Court sharply berated the state terming their non-cooperation as the ‘sign of non-governance. The deterioration of Ganga and Yamuna is a classic case of ‘desperate times, desperate measures, the court granted the juristic entity at par with Hindu idol. The Uttarakhand High Court in another case reiterated the constitution of the Ganga Management Board has become all the more necessary for the purpose of irrigation, water supply, hydropower generation, and navigation.

The division bench of Uttarakhand High Court sharply berated…non-governance was observed in which of the following cases?

1. Indian Council for Enviro-legal Action v. Union of India
2. Rural Litigation & Entitlement Kendra v. State of Uttarakhand
3. Divya Pharmacy v. Union of India
4. Lalit Miglani v. State of Uttarakhand.

Answer: (d)

97. ‘The Uttarakhand High Court in another case reiterated ‘the constitution…navigation’ as quoted in the paragraph, refers to which one of the following cases?

1. Mohd Salim v. State of Uttarakhand
2. Yogendra Nath v. Commissioner of Income Tax
3. Ram Jankijee v. State of Bihar
4. M. C. Mehta v. Kamal Nath.

Answer: (a)

98. The term ‘Parens Patriae’ refers to:

1. Common Suit
2. Descent from parent
3. Parent of his/her own country/state
4. Barred by res Judicata.

Answer: (c)

99. The term ‘loco parentis’ refers to:

1. In equal fault
2. In place of parent
3. Hizanat period
4. Indigent suit.

Answer: (b)

100. Hindu Idol is a juristic entity capable of holding property, was laid down in:

1. Bengal Immunity Co. Ltd v. State of Bihar
2. Yogendra Nath Naskar v. Commissioner of Income tax.
3. M. Basheer v. Lona Chakola
4. Nanak Chand v. State of U.P.

Answer: (b)

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