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DU LLM QUESTION PAPER, 2021

1) Under Section 423 of the Companies Act, 2013 any person who is aggrieved by an order of the National Company Law

Appellate Tribunal may approach the Supreme Court on any question of law within days from the date of receipt of the order of the Appellate Tribunal to him on any question of law arising out of such order.

1. 30 days

2. 45 days

3. 60 days

4. 90 days

Answer: 3

2) What is the maximum number of directors a One Person Company can have under the Companies Act, 2013?

1. 1

2. 3

3. 15

4. 17

Answer: 3

3) A company licenced under section 8 of the Companies Act, 2013 may alter the provisions contained in its memorandum or articles only after obtaining the previous approval of

1. The Central Government

2. The Tribunal

3. The Court

4. The state government

Answer: 1

4) Under the Companies Act, 2013, the paid up capital and turnover of a small company shall not exceed rupees and rupees respectively.

1. 50 Lakhs; 10 Crores

2. 2 Crores; 20 Crores

3. 2 Crores; 10 Crores

4. 50 Lakhs; 2 Crores

Answer: 2

5) Under which doctrine, outsiders dealing with the company are entitled to assume that as far as internal proceedings of the company are concerned, everything has been done regularly?

1. Ultra vires

2. Constructive notice

3. Indoor management

4. Alter ego

Answer: 3

6) What is the legal status of a promoter in relation to a company?

1. An agent

2. A trustee

3. Both an agent and a trustee

4. Neither an agent nor a trustee

Answer: 4

7) First Annual General Meeting of a Newly incorporated company which is registered under the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013 is to be held within

1. 6 months from the date of closing of the first financial year

2. 9 months from the date of closing of the first financial year

3. 6 months from the date of closing the first calendar year

4. 9 months from the date of closing the first calendar year

Answer: 2

8) Identify the correct statement or statements on High Courts in India from the following:

A. Article 215 of the Constitution provides that every High Court shall be a court of record and shall have all the powers of such court including the power to punish for contempt of itself.

B. Article 226 deals with the appellate jurisdiction of the High Court.

C. Article 214 declares that the provisions of clauses (4) and (5) of Article 124 of the Constitution relating to the procedure for the removal of a judge of the Supreme Court shall be made applicable in relation to a High Court.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B and C

2. A only

3. B only

4. C only

Answer: 2

9) Government of NCT of Delhi v. Union of India, 2018 (8) SCC 501, is a decision of the Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court on the interpretation of Article of the Constitution.

1. 368

2. 301

3. 243‐A

4. 239‐AA

Answer: 4

10) Which one of the following is not a decision on the power of Parliament to amend the Constitution of India and procedure therefor?

1. Golak Nath v. State of Punjab

2. Kesavananda Bharti v. State of Kerala

3. Union of India v. Naveen Jindal

4. Minerva Mills Ltd v. Union of India

Answer: 3

11) Which of the following is correct?

1. Part VIII of the Constitution deals with Co‐operative Societies

2. Part IX‐A of the Constitution of India deals with Municipalities

3. Part IX‐B of the Constitution of India deals with Panchayats

4. Part X of the Constitution of India deals with Languages

Answer: 2

12) Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A ‐ I, B ‐ II, C ‐ III, D ‐ IV

2. A ‐ IV, B ‐ III, C ‐ II, D ‐ I

3. A ‐ II, B ‐ I, C ‐ IV, D ‐ III

4. A ‐ III, B ‐ IV, C ‐ I, D ‐ II

Answer: 2

13) In which of the following cases the Supreme Court of India held that the freedom of speech and expression through the medium of internet is an integral part of Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution of India?

1. Indian Express v. Union of India

2. Shreya Singhal v. Union of India

3. Anuradha Bhasin v. Union of India

4. CPIO v. Subhash Chandra Aggarwal

Answer: 3

14) Which of the following is a decision on the meaning of ‘State’ as defined under Article 12 of the Constitution of India?

1. Keshavan Madhava Menon v. State of Bombay

2. Basheshar Nath v. CIT

3. Charanjit Lal Chowdhury v. Union of India

4. Pradeep Kumar Biswas v. Indian Institute of Chemical Biology

Answer: 4

15) In which case the Supreme Court of India held the following? “We think that the right to life includes the right to live with human dignity and all that goes along with it, namely, the bare necessaries of life such as adequate nutrition, clothing and shelter and facilities for reading, writing and expressing oneself in diverse forms, freely moving about and mixing and commingling with fellow human beings.”

1. A. K. Gopalan v. State of Madras

2. Nandini Sunder v. State of Chhattisgarh

3. Consumer Education and Research Center v. Union of India

4. Francis Coralie Mullin v. UT of Delhi

Answer: 4

16) Which among the following cases led to adding of clause (4) to Article 16 of the Constitution of India by the Constitution (1st Amendment) Act, 1951?

1. M.R. Balaji v. State of Mysore

2. P. Rajendran v. State of Madras

3. State of Madras v. Champakam Dorairajan

4. State of Uttar Pradesh v. Pradip Tandon

Answer: 3

17) Identify the correct statement or statements on the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India from the following:

A. Article 131 lays down the exclusive and original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.

B. Articles 132 ‐ 136 of the Constitution deal with the appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.

C. Article 143 deals with the advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B and C

2. A and B only

3. A only

4. C only

Answer: 1

18) Which of the following statements is correct in the context of the Indian Contract Act, 1872?

1. Stranger to contract can enforce a promise

2. Stranger to consideration can enforce a promise

3. Stranger to consideration is stranger to contract

4. Stranger to consideration cannot enforce a promise

Answer: 2

19) As per section 16 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, a person is deemed to be in a position to dominate the will of another where:

A. he holds a real or apparent authority over the other

B. he stands in a fiduciary relation to the other

C. he makes a contract with a person whose mental capacity is temporarily affected by reason of age, illness, or mental or bodily distress

D. he makes a contract with a person whose mental capacity is permanently affected by reason of age, illness, or mental or bodily distress

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A and B only

2. A, B and D only

3. A, B and C only

4. A, B, C and D

Answer: 4

20) A promises to obtain for B an employment in the public service and B promises to pay 1000 rupees to A. The agreement is

1. void

2. voidable

3. valid

4. enforceable

Answer: 1

21) Which of the following cases is related to the principle that acceptance, in the context of a contract, must be communicated to the offeror himself?

1. Balfour v Balfour

2. Harvey v Facey

3. Felthouse v Bindley

4. Lalman Shukla v Gauri Datt

Answer: 3

22) B accepts A’s proposal by posting a letter of acceptance to A. The above acceptance

1. Cannot be revoked by B

2. Can be revoked by B at any time before the letter of acceptance reaches A

3. Can be revoked by B at any time before or at the moment when the letter of acceptance reaches A

4. Can be revoked by B at any time after the letter of acceptance reaches A

Answer: 3

23) Who among the following may dispense with or remit performance of promise under Section 63 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872?

1. Promisee

2. Promisor

3. Promisee or Promisor

4. Any person

Answer: 1

24) A contract is not discharged by

1. Performance

2. Breach

3. Commercial Hardship

4. Novation

Answer: 3

25) X places an order with Y for supply of 50 radio sets. Y knows nothing of X’s mode of conducting his business. Y could not supply them in time. X loses a profitable contract due to non‐receipt of the radio sets and claimed his loss of profit from Y. X will fail in his claim because the nature of loss is

1. Ordinary

2. Remote

3. Special

4. Indirect

Answer: 3

26) A supplies B, a lunatic, with necessaries suitable to his condition in life. A is

1. Entitled to be reimbursed from B’s property

2. Entitled to be reimbursed from B personally

3. Not entitled to be reimbursed from B’s property

4. Entitled to be reimbursed from B personally or his property

Answer: 1

27) Hochester v. De La Tour is related to

1. Quantum meruit

2. Anticipatory breach of contract

3. Non Est Factum

4. Promissory Estoppel

Answer: 2

28) When is consent of the victim relevant for the offence of trafficking as defined in section 370 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860?

1. When the victim is above 16 years of age

2. When the victim is above 18 years of age

3. When the victim is between 16 to 18 years of age

4. It is not relevant

Answer: 4

29) Which of the following sections was not added to the Indian Penal Code by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013?

1. Section 228A

2. Section 370A

3. Section 166A

4. Section 326A

Answer: 1

30) Which of the following offences under the Indian Penal Code, 1860 does not require involvement of minimum five persons?

1. Unlawful assembly

2. Robbery

3. Dacoity

4. Rioting

Answer: 2

31) Which of the following is correct about marital rape under the Indian Penal Code, 1860?

1. It is not recognised as an offence, irrespective of the age of the wife.

2. It is recognised as an offence if the age of the wife is below 15 years.

3. It is recognised as an offence if the age of the wife is below 18 years.

4. It is recognised as an offence irrespective of the age of the wife.

Answer: 3

32) For which of the following offences under the Indian Penal Code, 1860 the right of private defence is not available to the extent of causing death?

1. Dacoity

2. Robbery

3. Acid attack

4. Extortion

Answer: 4

33) In calculating fractions of terms of punishment under the Indian Penal Code, 1860 imprisonment for life has to be taken as

1. Imprisonment for 20 years

2. Imprisonment for 14 years

3. Imprisonment for 30 years

4. Depends on the age of the convict

Answer: 1

34) Ajay deploys men with firearms at the outlets of a building and tells Neeraj that they will fire at Neeraj if he attempts to leave the building. Which offence is Ajay guilty of under the Indian Penal Code, 1860?

1. Wrongful restraint

2. Criminal Intimidation

3. Abduction

4. Wrongful confinement

Answer: 4

35) Failure to provide free treatment to an acid attack victim is punishable under:

1. Section 166A, IPC

2. Section 166B, IPC

3. Section 354B, IPC

4. Not punishable under IPC

Answer: 2

36) Z entrusted his servant S with some silver cutlery to be kept safely. S dishonestly runs away with the cutlery to his home town, without Z's consent. S is guilty of which offence under the Indian Penal Code, 1860?

1. Criminal breach of trust

2. Mischief

3. Dishonest misappropriation

4. Theft

Answer: 4

37) X begins to unloose the muzzle of a ferocious dog, intending to cause Z to believe that he is about to cause the dog to attack Z. X is guilty of which offence under the Indian Penal Code, 1860?

1. Criminal intimidation

2. No offence since it only amounts to preparation

3. Assault

4. Criminal force

Answer: 2

38) The computer under the Information Technology Act, 2000 means any electronic, magnetic, optical or any high speed data processing device or system which performs , and functions by manipulations of electronic, magnetic or optical impulses and inlcudes all input, output, processing, storage, computer software or facilities which are connected or related to the computer in a computer system or computer network. Fill in the blanks:

1. logical, arithmetic, memory, communication

2. arithmetic, browsing, storing, internet

3. calculations, processing, storing, network

4. analytical, calculations, self‐learning, communication

Answer: 1

39) If the proposal or acceptance of proposal expressed in electronic form or by means of electronic record in a contract formation, such contract shall deemed to be

A. Unenforceable solely on the ground that it was expressed through email

B. Not unenforceable solely on the ground that it was expressed through email and signed with digital signatures

C. Not unenforceable solely on the ground that it was expressed on the website

D. Unenforceable solely on the ground that it was expressed on the website. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. B and C only

2. A and B only

3. B only

4. A, B and D only

Answer: 1

40) In which of the following case/s the Supreme Court interpreted the word 'actual knowledge' under section 79(3)(b) of the Information Technology Act, 2000 as 'actual knowledge by a court order'?

A. Shreya Singhal v. Union of India

B. Ratan Tata v. Union of India

C. Avneek Sarkar v. State of West Bengal

D. Mspace v. Super Cassettes

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. B and D only

2. C only

3. A and D only

4. A only

Answer: 4

41) Which of the following acts are punishable under section 67B of the Information Technology Act, 2000?

A. Publishing or transmitting material depicting children in sexually explicit act

B. Facilitating abusing children online

C. Browsing material depicting children in indecent or sexually explicit manner

D. stalking children online

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A only

2. B and D only

3. A, B and C only

4. D only

Answer: 3

42) On which of the following grounds under Section 69A of the Information Technology Act, 2000 the Central Government may direct any agency of the Government or intermediary to block for access by the public or cause to be blocked for access by the public any information generated, transmitted, received, stored or hosted in any computer resource?

A. Public order

B. Sovereignty and integrity of India

C. Defamation

D. Decency and morality

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B, C and D

2. B, C and D only

3. A and B only

4. C and D only

Answer: 3

43) Which of the following is a non‐patentable invention?

1. a method of agriculture and horticulture

2. a ceiling fan speed regulator

3. a pharmaceutical drug to treat cancer

4. a 5G wireless device

Answer: 1

44) Which of the following is an example of Geographical Indication?

1. Nokia

2. Basmati

3. Cipla

4. Sribhog

Answer: 2

45) Which of the following is not a ground for applying for a compulsory licence under the Patents Act, 1970?

1. Non‐satisfaction of the reasonable requirements of the public with respect to the patented inventions

2. Non‐availability of the patented invention to the public at a reasonably affordable price

3. Non‐working of the patented invention in the territory of India

4. Bad quality of the patented invention

Answer: 4

46) Which among the following is not an indication of certification marks as defined under the Trade Marks Act, 1999?

1. Quality

2. Mode of manufacture of goods

3. Place of origin

4. Quantity

Answer: 4

47) Which among the following is not regarded as basic premise of legal positivism?

1. Law exists as social fact

2. Law is the product of human authority

3. There is no necessary connection between law and morality

4. Validity of law is contingent upon its acceptance by people

Answer: 4

48) Under the Patent Act, 1970, the complete specification is required to be filed after how many months from the date of the filing of the provisional specification?

1. 10 months

2. 12 months

3. 14 months

4. 18 months

Answer: 2

49) Which among the following is a trademark protected under the Trade Marks Act, 1999?

1. an invention

2. a literary work

3. a logo

4. semicondutor

Answer: 3

50) Professor H.L.A. Hart belonged to

1. Natural Law School

2. Positive Law School

3. Realist Law School

4. Critical Legal Studies

Answer: 2

51) Who is called the Father of English Jurisprudence?

1. Bentham

2. H.L.A. Hart

3. John Austin

4. Hans Kelson

Answer: 3

52) Match the theories of property given in Column A with their author in Column B

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A ‐ I, B ‐ II, C ‐ III, D ‐ IV

2. A ‐ III, B ‐ II, C ‐ I, D ‐ IV

3. A ‐ II, B ‐ I, C ‐ III, D ‐ IV

4. A ‐ IV, B ‐ III, C ‐ I, D ‐ II

Answer: 2

53) Match the concepts in Column A with their jural opposites in Column B

Choose the correct options from the code given below:

1. A ‐ IV, B ‐ III, C ‐ II, D ‐ I

2. A ‐ III, B ‐ IV, C ‐ I, D ‐ II

3. A ‐ II, B ‐ I, C ‐ III, D ‐ IV

4. A ‐ I, B ‐ II, C ‐ III, D ‐ IV

Answer: 1

54) Which of the following is not an immovable property under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?

1. Right to fishery

2. Right to collect lac from trees

3. Right to worship

4. Right to way

Answer: 3

55) According to section 5 of the Transfer of property Act, 1882 'living persons' includes;

A. A company

B. Assosiation

C. Body of Individuals

D. An Individual

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. D only

2. A and B only

3. A, B and C only

4. A, B, C and D

Answer: 4

56) Which among the following is correct in the context of the right of 'spes successionis'?

1. Transferable

2. Non‐transferable

3. Depends upon the nature of transaction

4. Partially transferable

Answer: 2

57) A father transferred his property to his married Christian daughter on a condition that she would not have the right to alienate the property during her marriage. This Transfer is...

1. Void

2. Valid

3. Voidable

4. Irregular

Answer: 2

58) The ‘rule against perpetuity’ is discussed under which section of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?

1. Section 13

2. Section 14

3. Section 15

4. Section 16

Answer: 2

59) Which of the following is not true:

1. International law is a product of colonisation

2. In its formative years, international law was explicitly based on the distinction between civilised and uncivilised

3. Positivism provided for the theoretical justification to the Eurocentric nature of international law

4. Permanent Court of Arbitration was established under the Treaty of Versailles

Answer: 4

60) Which one of the following systems was introduced by the League of Nations?

1. Holy Alliance

2. Mandate system

3. Concert of Europe

4. The Hague system

Answer: 2

61) According to the United Nations Charter, the UNO is based on the principle of sovereign equality of states, but the Charter itself deviates from the same as:

1. it requires the states to refrain from using force against the political independence of each other

2. the Security Council has the power to determine the existence of threat to peace or breach of peace

3. a member‐state may be expelled from the Organisation on the ground of persistently violating the principles of the Organisation

4. it divides the membership of the Security Council into permanent and non‐permanent members

Answer: 4

62) Which among the following is the first case decided by the International Court of Justice in respect of international personality of international institutions?

1. Certain Expenses case [Option ID = 5529]

2. Reparations case [Option ID = 5530]

3. Asylum case [Option ID = 5531]

4. Lotus case [Option ID = 5532]

Answer: 2

63) According to the Supreme Court of India the rules of customary international law are applicable in India:

1. only if the rules are part of a treaty to which India is a party

2. if they are not in conflict with the municipal law

3. only if they have been incorporated in a municipal legislation

4. if the President of India permits

Answer: 2

64) According to the International Law Commission’s Articles on State Responsibility, which of the following is not a form of reparation?

1. Satisfaction

2. Compensation

3. Imprisonment

4. Restitution

Answer: 3

65) The principle rebus sic stantibus in international law refers to:

1. fundamental change in circumstances

2. application of a treaty on third parties

3. peremptory norms of international law

4. rules of war

Answer: 1

66) Which of the following is not correct about asylum?

1. A political offender may not be granted asylum

2. Asylum involves active protection by the host state

3. Diplomatic asylum is an instance of extra‐territorial asylum

4. Columbia v. Peru case is related to asylum

Answer: 1

67) Which of the following is not correct about continental shelf?

1. It is a maritime zone based on geographical considerations

2. It comprises of natural prolongation of the land mass into the sea

3. Coastal state may share surplus resources available in the shelf with geographically disadvantaged nations in some cases

4. Its breadth may not extend beyond two hundred nautical miles from the baseline.

Answer: 4

68) Which principal organ of the United Nations is mainly concerned with promoting respect for human rights?

1. Economic and Social Council

2. General Assembly

3. Security Council

4. UN Human Rights Council

Answer: 1

69) Match the legal maxims in column A with their meaning in column B.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A ‐ III, B ‐ II, C ‐ I, D ‐ IV

2. A ‐ III, B ‐ III, C ‐ I, D ‐ II

3. A ‐ I, B ‐ III, C ‐ II, D ‐ IV

4. A ‐ IV, B ‐ III, C ‐ II, D ‐ I

Answer: 4

70) Who among the following is associated with “The Pigeon Hole Theory” in the field of law of torts?

1. Austin

2. Salmond

3. Blackstone

4. Duguit

Answer: 2

71) In Defamation, the term ‘Innuendo’ means

1. The statement must be published

2. Primary meaning

3. Secondary meaning

4. Privilege

Answer: 3

72) The Doctrine of ‘Common Employment’ was first laid down in the case of

1. Rylands v. Fletcher, (1868) LR 3 HL 330.

2. Twine v. Beans Express Ltd., (1946)1 All E.R. 202

3. Priestley v. Fowler, [1837] 150 E.R. 1030

4. Ashby v. White, (1703) 2 Ld Raym 938

Answer: 3

73) Which among the following has the power to direct the closure of any industry under section 33A of the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974?

1. State Pollution Control Board

2. State Government

3. National Green Tribunal

4. Supreme Court of India

Answer: 1

74) In which case, the Supreme Court of India held that, “In the modern sense the distinction between sovereign or non‐ sovereign power thus does not exist. It all depends on the nature of power and manner of its exercise.”

1. Rajkot Municipal Corporation v. Manjulben Jayantilal Nakum & ors. 1997 (9) SCC 552

2. Jacob Mathew v. State of Punjab (2005) 6 SCC 1

3. N. Nagendra Rao & Co. v. State of A. P., AIR 1994 SC 2663

4. Tushar Kanti Ghosh v. Bina Bhowmick (1953) 57 CWN 378

Answer: 3

75) According to the Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act 2019, what is the minimum amount of compensation for road accident victims in case of grievous injury in the hit and run motor accident?[Question ID = 1396]

1. a fixed sum of fifty thousand rupees or such higher amount as may be prescribed by the Central Government

2. a fixed sum of one lakh rupees or such higher amount as may be prescribed by the Central Government

3. a fixed sum of twenty five thousand rupees or such higher amount as may be prescribed by the Central Government

4. a fixed sum of seventy five thousand rupees or such higher amount as may be prescribed by the Central Government

Answer: 1

76) Which of the following sections that deal with offences by juveniles have been added to the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 through the Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act, 2019?

1. Section 190A and 190B

2. Section 199A and 199B

3. Section 195A and 195B

4. Section 198A and 198B

Answer: 2

77) Within how many days, an appeal can be filed before the National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission against an order of the Central Consumer Protection Authority under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019?

1. 45 days

2. 90 days

3. 60 days

4. 30 days

Answer: 4

78) Select the incorrect option – Under the new Consumer Protection Act, 2019, a product service provider shall be liable in a product liability action, if—

1. the service provided by him was faulty or imperfect or deficient or inadequate in quantity, nature or manner of performance which is required to be provided by or under any law for the time being in force except pursuant to any trade practices.

2. there was an act of omission or commission or negligence or conscious withholding of any information which caused harm.

3. the service provider did not issue adequate instructions or warnings to prevent any harm.

4. the service did not conform to express warranty or the terms and conditions of the contract.

Answer: 1

79) According to the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, if any manufacturer or service provider made a false or misleading advertisement which is prejudicial to the interest of consumers, he shall be punished with…

1. Imprisonment upto four years and with fine upto ten lakh rupees

2. Imprisonment upto three years and with fine upto five lakh rupees

3. Imprisonment upto two years and with fine upto ten lakh rupees

4. Imprisonment upto one year and with fine upto five lakh rupees

Answer: 3

80) In which of the following cases the High Court of Uttarakhand declared the Rivers Ganga and Yamuna as legal persons?

1. Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum v Union of India

2. Indian Council for Enviro‐Legal Action v Union of India

3. Subhash Kumar v State of Bihar

4. Mohd. Salim v State of Uttarakhand

Answer: 4

81) Which among the following cases is not relevant in the context of the Public Trust Doctrine?

1. M.C. Mehta v Kamal Nath (Span Motels case)

2. M.I. Builders (P) Ltd. v. Radhey Shyam Sahu

3. Centre for Public Interest Litigation v Union of India (2G Spectrum case)

4. State of M.P. v. Kedia Leather and Liquor Ltd

Answer: 4

82) Which among the following is the appellate forum for any person aggrieved by any award, decision or order of the National Green Tribunal?

1. High Court of the state from which the cause of action arose

2. Supreme Court of India

3. National Environment Appellate Authority

4. Appeal is not permitted against an award, decision or order of the National Green Tribunal

Answer: 2

83) The National Green Tribunal has jurisdiction over all civil cases arising out of the implementation of statutes mentioned in Schedule I of the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010. Which among the following statutes is not mentioned in Schedule I?

1. The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1971

2. The Biological Diversity Act, 2002

3. The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess Act, 1977

4. The Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972

Answer: 4

84) State governments are required to obtain prior approval from the Central Government to use any forest land for non‐ forest purposes under the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980. Which among the following is not regarded as ‘non‐forest purposes’ under it?

1. Clearing of forest for cultivation of tea

2. Clearing of forest for cultivation of medicinal plants

3. Clearing of forest for cultivation of horticulture crops

4. Construction of dams relating to conservation of forest

Answer: 4

85) In which year India adopted its first National Water Policy?

1. 1992

2. 1987

3. 1974

4. 2002

Answer: 2

86) Which among the following cases is not related to the principle of absolute liability?

1. M.C. Mehta v Union of India (Oleum Gas Leak case)

2. Union Carbide Corporation v Union of India (Bhopal case)

3. Indian Council for Enviro‐Legal Action v Union of India

4. Municipal Council, Ratlam v Vardhichand

Answer 4

87) Trail Smelter Arbitration (United States/Canada) is known for —

1. Duty not to cause transboundary harm

2. Duty to protect migratory species

3. Duty to conduct transboundary environment impact assessment

4. Duty to protect marine environment

Answer: 1

88) According to the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 “goods” does not include

1. Stock and Share

2. Money

3. Growing crop

4. Growing Grass

Answer: 2

89) Under the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 what can be considered as a “condition” in a contract of sale with reference to goods?

1. stipulation not crucial for the execution of contract

2. stipulation collateral to the main purpose of the contract

3. stipulation not essential to form a contract

4. stipulation essential to the main purpose of the contract

Answer: 4

90) Under the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, voluntary transfer of possession from one person to another is —

1. Transfer of property

2. Delivery

3. Agency

4. Surety

Answer: 2

91) Under the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, ‘price’ is defined as

1. Goods exchanged

2. Money consideration

3. Actionable claims

4. Demonetised currency

Answer: 2

92) Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 has extra‐territorial operation on non‐Indian Hindu couples or couples residing in other countries

1. only when both parties are citizens of India

2. only if one of the parties is a citizen of India

3. only when both parties are of Indian domicile

4. only if one of the parties is of Indian domicile

Answer: 3

93) Read two statements below and choose the correct answer from the options.

Statement I: In Maneka Gandhi v. Indira Gandhi, the estate of late Shri Sanjay Gandhi was governed by the rules of succession under the Indian Succession Act, 1925.

Statement II: Late Sanjay Gandhi was born to a Parsi father and a Hindu mother and brought up as a Parsi.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the explanation for Statement I

3. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

4. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

Answer: 1

94) A, a male aged 20 years marries B, a female aged 17 years in the year 2018 according to Hindu rites and ceremonies.

In 2021

A. A has right to get the marriage dissolved under the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006

B. A has the right to get the marriage annulled by a decree of nullity under the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006

C. B has the right to get the marriage dissolved under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955

D. B has the right to get the marriage annulled by a decree of nullity under the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, C and D are correct and B is incorrect

2. B, C and D are correct and A is incorrect

3. A, B, C and D are incorrect

4. A, B, C and D are correct

Answer: 1

95) Owing to incompatibility of the parties to the marriage, if they have not resumed cohabitation after judicial separation decree or there is no restitution of conjugal rights (RCR) after passing of the RCR decree for a period of one year or upward, it is better that they divorce. Which theory best suits their divorce?

1. Irretrievable breakdown theory

2. Breakdown theory

3. Guilt/ Fault theory

4. Mutual consent theory

Answer: 1

96) A, a Hindu divorced male, aged 24 years, has 2 years old son. He wants to adopt an orphaned female child aged 5 years. Which among the following is correct?

1. He could adopt under the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956 only

2. He could adopt under the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 only

3. He could adopt either under both the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956 or the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015

4. He could adopt neither under the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956 nor the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015

Answer: 4

97) A Hindu joint family belonging to Bombay Sub‐school of Mitakshara School comprises X, his father, mother, wife, and two daughters. X died in January 2021. On the death of X, each daughter is entitled to

1. 5/24 of the entire property

2. 5/48 of the entire property

3. 1/3 of the entire property

4. no share

Answer: 2

98) In which of the following cases Prakash v. Phulavati was overruled?

1. Danamma @ Suman Surpur v. Amar

2. Sistia Sarada Devi v. Uppaluri Hari Narayana

3. Vineeta Sharma v. Rakesh Sharma

4. Mangammal v. T.B. Raju

Answer: 3

99) In Shayara Bano v. Union of India, a Constitutional Bench of the Supreme Court ruled that triple talaq was unconstitutional. The dissenting opinion in the case has been written by:

1. CJI. Jagdish Singh Khehar and J. J. S. Abdul Nazeer

2. J. Rohinton Fali Nariman and J. Uday Umesh Lalit

3. CJI. Jagdish Singh Khehar and J. Kurien

4. J. J. S. Abdul Nazeer and J. Kurien.

Answer: 1

100) Which of the following statements is correct?

1. Conversion to another religion by a Muslim female automatically dissolves her marriage

2. Conversion to another religion by a Muslim male automatically dissolves his marriage

3. Conversion to another religion by either a Muslim husband or a Muslim wife automatically dissolves their marriage

4. Conversion by either party does not automatically dissolve a Muslim

Answer: 2

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